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The NASB, which tends to be a less biased translation (for example, it translates occurrances of rah as evil, as all translations should, more than any other ) AND the NIV, which is a highly biased translation, both use the word slave.

I love this site: The Greek Bible. You can click on any greek word and you will see it's definitions.

If you wonder what the actual Greek says in the ancient texts, go there. Look up Matthew 10, and you will see that in verse 24, the word douloV (fifth word from the end) is the word for slave. Yes, servant is also in there, but as a lesser meaning.

The bizarre thing it that Revelation 18:13 has the only use of the word slave in the KJV NT, and in that case, the Greek isn't even slave, but human body. So, there, slaves is only inferred by the translators. Gah, what a mess. It's like an insoluable puzzle. Thanks, Jehover.

It makes me nuts that some believers will tell you that you can't possibly fully understand the Bible unless you get cuddly with the language of the original texts, but then, when you do, you find that the same problem exists: WHAT THE HELL WAS THE INTENT OF THE AUTHORS!? It's like stripping away the first layers of an onion only to find more layers.

Anyway, what bugs me about this passage is that it is saying that the slave (or servant) is no better than his master. In other words, if you are being paid to do some work by some dude who goes out and commits mass murder, then you are just as bad as him since you are employed (or owned) by him. That's just silly. Not all servants or slaves are just like their masters. Slaves, especially, don't have to be like their masters since they have no choice but to be owned by them.