Notice where I placed the statement "Matthew 28:1-9 says that Jesus appeared first to the two Marys." It's not in my answer, it's within the question that I'm fielding. A careful reading of my answer, combined with a careful reading of the Easter-Challenge Preface post, should reveal that I do not grant that Matthew 28:1-9 rules out any appearances of Jesus to anyone prior to His appearance to the women as they were departing from the tomb in 28:9. By the time Jesus appears in Matthew 28:9, He had already appeared to Mary Magdalene, who had already run from the tomb and rejoined the other women, including the other Mary.
Yours in Christ,
Waterrock
