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No; Matthew simply makes explicit what was implicit in Jesus statement.
I fail to see the qualification implicit in the Mark/Luke version. If Matthew had not put the qualifier in his version, no one would ever suspect that Mark/Luke's rendition would be qualified. The only way to reconcile this is to commit the eisegesis fallacy.
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If God inspired men to write the Bible without error, why did He not inspire men to copy it without error? If God miraculously inspired writers to perfection, not inspiring copyists renders the whole point moot.