Argy Lacedom ~
WR: "this was a command given to the apostles, and it is not necessarily transferable to believers in general."
AL: ... "To be consistent why not take this approach for the all the gosples? Nothing he said was meant for anyone other than those who heard it. For example, when Jesus said the way to heaven was through him, why didn't that apply to only those people who heard it?"
You don't seem to be looking at the pertinent texts very closely. Here in Matthew 21, Jesus specifically told the disciples "whatsoever YOU shall ask in prayer, believing, you shall receive." In John 14:6, He doesn't say "None of you comes to the Father except through Me." He said "No man comes to the Father except through Me." To me the distinction is clear; the statement in Matt. 21 is capable of universal application but it is also capable of a more limited application. Whereas in John 14:6, the intent of Jesus and the author of the book appears to be to state that nobody comes to the Father except through Jesus.
AL: "When he said he would return within their lifetimes did he mean he would only return for them? Has he already returned for them?"
(Officer, I'd like to report a topic-theft.) That's not exactly what he said. See my comments on Matthew 16:28 about this entirely unrelated question.
Yours in Christ,
Waterrock
WR: "this was a command given to the apostles, and it is not necessarily transferable to believers in general."
AL: ... "To be consistent why not take this approach for the all the gosples? Nothing he said was meant for anyone other than those who heard it. For example, when Jesus said the way to heaven was through him, why didn't that apply to only those people who heard it?"
You don't seem to be looking at the pertinent texts very closely. Here in Matthew 21, Jesus specifically told the disciples "whatsoever YOU shall ask in prayer, believing, you shall receive." In John 14:6, He doesn't say "None of you comes to the Father except through Me." He said "No man comes to the Father except through Me." To me the distinction is clear; the statement in Matt. 21 is capable of universal application but it is also capable of a more limited application. Whereas in John 14:6, the intent of Jesus and the author of the book appears to be to state that nobody comes to the Father except through Jesus.
AL: "When he said he would return within their lifetimes did he mean he would only return for them? Has he already returned for them?"
(Officer, I'd like to report a topic-theft.) That's not exactly what he said. See my comments on Matthew 16:28 about this entirely unrelated question.
Yours in Christ,
Waterrock
