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        <title>Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce</title>
        <link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/topic/1809/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html</link>
        <description>
        <![CDATA[ First Q:  In Matthew 5:32, Jesus says that divorce is permissible when the wife is guilty of fornication.  But what if the husband is unfaithful?A:  The text (here in Matthew) does not say.  But if one brings Galatians 3:28 into the equation, the result is that an adulterous husband is likewise liable to be divorced.      Second Q:  In Matthew 5:32, Jesus names adultery as potential justification for divorce.  But in Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18, Jesus says, Whoever divorces his wife and marries... ]]>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/44749/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-44749</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ REAL Christians don&#39;t argue over these! ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (busterggi)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/44749</guid>
			<pubDate>Tue, 17 Mar 2009 18:44:39 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/44743/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-44743</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ It is amazing that Christians are arguing over the antiquarian, ascetic philosophies of long-dead, illiterate carpenters and fishermen. ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (dsundertaker)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/44743</guid>
			<pubDate>Tue, 17 Mar 2009 12:49:15 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17780/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17780</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ I think MissJesus has it correct. Fornication in Greek is Porneia but in Hebrew is Zanah. Leviticus explains the Zanah code clearly. Jesus says once you are married let no one dissolve it unless it is a prohibited marriage under the Zanah Code. For example if a brother discovers he is married to a sister or half sister or aunt etc. ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (Limudyah)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17780</guid>
			<pubDate>Tue, 08 Aug 2006 14:05:56 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17779/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17779</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ Jesus did not use the greek words sited.  He spoke aramaic.  The editor of Matthew (or at least this portion of Matthew) has taken numerous sources and combined them for his own evangelical agenda...&quot;Jesus Is The New And Superior Moses&quot;...hence the constant &quot;Moses has said...but I say...&quot; formulae.<br>When the editor chose the words in the exception clause he was approximating in greek what Jesus allegedly said in aramaic.  It is possible Jesus said none of this at all.... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (William Laud)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17779</guid>
			<pubDate>Tue, 28 Mar 2006 21:39:17 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17778/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17778</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ <!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr>This part doesn't make sense. If he was unfaithful but she wasn't, and then he divorced her, causing her to need to remarry for sustenance, then why wouldn't he be responsible for her pursuit of another man? <hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--><br><br>He <!--EZCODE ITALIC START--><em>would</em><!--EZCODE ITALIC END--> be responsible for her pursuit of another man, but maybe in this case it's not considered adultery,... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (AniRB)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17778</guid>
			<pubDate>Tue, 17 Jan 2006 15:30:11 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17777/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17777</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ <!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr>Thinking about it a little more, Matthew 5:32 makes little sense the way you (and the SAB, it would seem) are interpreting it. Without the exception, it basically says if a man divorces his wife he causes her to become an adulterer. So, when you throw the exception in there it says if a man divorces his wife, unless she was unfaithful, causes her to be an adulterer. But if she was unfaithful, wouldn't she already be an... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (Diskeyezed)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17777</guid>
			<pubDate>Mon, 16 Jan 2006 11:02:00 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17782/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17782</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ First, are the quotes from Jesus about &quot;whomsoever shall..&quot; all referring to the same event? If not, then any person hearing the quote without the exception would probably not realize there was an &quot;implicit&quot; exception to the rule. I don't see how one could interpret something differently if they heard it one way from thier lord.<br><br>If it is the same event, then different people heard different things, meaning at least there is a contradiction in the transcription of... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (WhatchooTalkinBout)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17782</guid>
			<pubDate>Thu, 05 Jan 2006 16:52:01 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17781/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17781</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ <!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr>No; Matthew simply makes explicit what was implicit in Jesus statement.<hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--> I fail to see the qualification implicit in the Mark/Luke version.  If Matthew had not put the qualifier in his version, <!--EZCODE BOLD START--><strong>no one</strong><!--EZCODE BOLD END--> would ever suspect that Mark/Luke's rendition would be qualified.  The only way to reconcile this is to commit the... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (FastHack)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17781</guid>
			<pubDate>Sat, 20 Aug 2005 01:20:56 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17776/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17776</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ Greetings Original MJ ~<br><br>That's a pretty good essay you've got there.  At the moment I still disagree with the main idea (that by &quot;porneia&quot; Jesus was referring to inherently unlawful marriage to close relatives), but there doesn't seem to be anything obviously unfeasible about it, and I'll try to investigate the idea further when I have a good opportunity.  Thanks for posting.<br><br>(The smiley-faces are a result of having the &quot;Use Emoticons&quot; box (to the upper right... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (Waterrock)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17776</guid>
			<pubDate>Fri, 19 Aug 2005 07:50:53 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17775/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17775</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ Thinking about it a little more, Matthew 5:32 makes little sense the way you (and the SAB, it would seem) are interpreting it.  Without the exception, it basically says if a man divorces his wife he causes her to become an adulterer.  So, when you throw the exception in there it says if a man divorces his wife, unless she was unfaithful, causes her to be an adulterer.  But if she was unfaithful, wouldn't she already be an adulterer?  So, maybe it means if HE was unfaithful then he woudn't be... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (OriginalMissJesus)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17775</guid>
			<pubDate>Thu, 18 Aug 2005 23:15:54 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17774/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17774</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ <!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr>First Q: In Matthew 5:32, Jesus says that divorce is permissible when the wife is guilty of fornication. But what if the husband is unfaithful?  <br><br>A: The text (here in Matthew) does not say. But if one brings Galatians 3:28 into the equation, the result is that an adulterous husband is likewise liable to be divorced.<hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--><br><br>As far as I can tell, in Galatians 3:28, Paul is... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (OriginalMissJesus)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17774</guid>
			<pubDate>Thu, 18 Aug 2005 22:42:47 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Re: Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/reply/17773/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html#reply-17773</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ I've heard this point of view before.  <br><br>It does make me wonder how gays getting married affects marriage since heteros have fucked it so bad.  How can gays affect something that someone else destroyed in the first place.  Maybe heteros are terrified that gays will make a better showing in marriage and make them {heteros} look like total loser ass clowns. <br><br>Gays can't get married, &quot;christianity&quot; is on the rise {supposedly} in the US and the divorce rate keeps climbing.... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (raphjd)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/sreply/17773</guid>
			<pubDate>Thu, 18 Aug 2005 14:31:30 GMT</pubDate>
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			<title><![CDATA[ Matthew 5:32 - Grounds for Divorce ]]></title>
			<link>http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/topic/1809/t/Matthew-5-32-Grounds-for-Divorce.html</link>
			<description><![CDATA[ First Q:  In Matthew 5:32, Jesus says that divorce is permissible when the wife is guilty of fornication.  But what if the husband is unfaithful?<br><br>A:  The text (here in Matthew) does not say.  But if one brings Galatians 3:28 into the equation, the result is that an adulterous husband is likewise liable to be divorced.      <br><br>Second Q:  In Matthew 5:32, Jesus names adultery as potential justification for divorce.  But in Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18, Jesus says, Whoever divorces his... ]]></description>

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			<author>feeds@yuku.com (Waterrock)</author>
			<guid isPermaLink="true">http://sabdiscussionboard.yuku.com/topic/1809</guid>
			<pubDate>Thu, 18 Aug 2005 11:04:35 GMT</pubDate>
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